Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 có đáp án được tổng hợp từ nhiều đề thi của các trường THCS là tài liệu cực hay dành cho các em học sinh ôn tập trước kỳ thi. Sau đây mời các em làm bài và tham khảo đáp án ở cuối bài.
Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm học 2016 – 2017 có đáp án
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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC& ĐÀO TẠO ……………….
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ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG GIỮA HỌC KÌ I NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH 7 Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút |
I. Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. (1 mark):
1. A. chair B. school C. couch D. children
2. A. sometimes B. moment C. stove D. close
3. A.biology B. geography C. physics D. fly
4. A. homework B. house C. hour D. here
II. Choose the best words by circling the letter A,B,C or D. (2 marks)
1. How …….. is it from your house to school?
A. far B. long C. old D. tall
2. What ……… intelligent boy!
A. the B. a C.an D. is
3. Would you like some coffee?- __________
A. Yes, please B. Of course C. No, thanks D. Both A and C are correct.
4. This car is the ……. expensive of the four car.
A. Best B. more C. good D. most
5. They enjoy ……..TV.
A. to watch B. watching C. to watching D. watched
6. A …………..work on a farm.
A. doctor B. farmer C. teacher D. journalist
7. She is very happy …….. you again.
A. meet B. meets C. to meet D. meeting
8. He is in class 7A and …………………………. am I.
A. too B. so C. but D. by
III. Give the correct form of the verbs in the bracket. (2 marks)
1. Trang (not have) any friends in Ha noi. 1……………………
2. Some boys and girls (play) marbles at the moment. 2……………………
3. The students (visit) their old teacher next week? 3……………………
4. Mr Nam usually (watch) TV in his free time? 4…………………..
IV. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in the capital letters (1 mark):
1. Today Lien is not………………..because she misses her parents HAPPINESS
2. Living in the city is………………than living in the countryside NOISY
3. In electronics, we learn to repair. …………………….appliances. HOUSE
4. My. ………………….is tall and beautiful. TEACH
V. Read the passage carefully then answer the questions: (2 marks)
Linda lives with her parents in a big house in HCM City. She is from England. She is thirteen. She has blue eyes and black hair. She is studying at International Language School. She can speak French, English and Vietnamese. But she doesn’t speak Vietnamese fluently. She often goes to French speaking club on Sunday mornings. She likes Vietnamese people very much because they are friendly.
1. Where is Linda from?……………………………………………………………………………..
2. How many languages can she speak?………………………………………………………………
3. Does she speak Vietnamese fluently?……………………………………………………………..
4. Why does she like Vietnamese people?…………………………………………………………
VI. Arrange the following words to make correct sentences. (1 mark).
1. play/ will/ soccer/ this/ afternoon/ they.
…………………………………………………………………………………
2. my/ is/ favorite/ English/ subject.
…………………………………………………………………………………
VII. Complete the following sentences with the suggested words. (1 mark).
1. It / difficult/ find/ apartment / Ho Chi Mih City?
……………………………………………………………………………………..
2. They/ listen/ music/ now.
……………………………………………………………………………………..
———-The end———-
Đáp án và thang điểm đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7
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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC&ĐÀO TẠO ……………………..
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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG GIỮA HỌC KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2016–2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH 7 |
A. Hướng dẫn chung:
1. Giám khảo cần nắm vững yêu cầu chấm để đánh giá tổng quát bài làm của thí sinh. Linh hoạt trong việc vận dụng đáp án và thang điểm. Tùy theo mức độ sai phạm mà trừ điểm từng phần cho hợp lí, tuyệt đối tránh cách chấm đếm ý cho điểm một cách máy móc, khuyến khích những bài viết có tính sáng tạo.
2. Việc chi tiết hóa điểm số của các ý (nếu có) phải đảm bảo không sai lệch với tổng điểm của mỗi phần và được thống nhất trong Hội đồng chấm thi. Làm tròn điểm số sau khi cộng điểm toàn bài (lẻ 0.25 làm tròn thành 0.5; lẻ 0.75 làm tròn thành 1.0).
B. Đáp án và thang điểm:
I. Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. (1 mark): Mỗi câu chọn đúng cho 0,25 điểm
1. B 2.A 3.D 4.C
II. Choose the best words by circling the letter A,B,C or D. (2 marks)
Mỗi câu chọn đúng cho 0,25 điểm
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. B
III. Give the correct form of the verbs in the bracket. (2 marks)
Mỗi động từ chia đúng cho 0,5 điểm
1. doesn’t have 2. are playing 3. will visit 4. watches
IV. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in the capital letters:
(1 mark): Mỗi từ biến đổi đúng cho 0,25 điểm
1. happy
2. noisier
3. household
4. teacher
V. Read the passage carefully then answer the questions: (2 marks)
Mỗi câu trả lời đúng cho 0,5 điểm
1. She is from England.
2. She can speak three languages.
3. No, she doesn’t.
4. She likes Vietnamese people very much because they are friendly.
VI. Arrange the following words to make correct sentences. (1 mark):
Mỗi câu sắp xếp đúng cho 0,5 điểm
1. They will play soccer this afternoon.
2. My favorite subject is English/English is my favorite subject.
VII. Complete the following sentences with the suggested words. (1 mark):
Mỗi câu hoàn thành đúng cho 0,5 điểm
1. Is it difficult to find an apartment in Ho Chi Minh City?
2. They are listening to music now.
———- The end ———-
Đề thi giữa học kỳ 1 môn tiếng Anh lớp 7 theo chương trình mới có đáp án
A. LISTENING
I. Listen and circle the best answer for the following questions as you hear. (1.25 pts)
1. How was Melissa’s weekend?
A. It’s terrible. B. It’s very good. C. It’s OK.
2. What did she do on Saturday night?
A. She went out. B. She stayed at home. C. She visited her friend.
3. Who did she go to the cinema with?
A. With her sisters. B. With her boyfriend. C. With some friends.
4. What was the film like?
A. It was so boring B. It was really good. C. It was not very good.
5. What did she do on Sunday?
A. Stayed at home and watched TV
B. Slept in until 10 a.m.
C. Did gardening with her mom.
II. Listen to Jack and Naomi. Are the statements below true (T) or false (F)? Check (T or F) in the boxes. (1.25 pts)
| Statements | T | F |
| 1. Jack’s weekend was very bad. | ||
| 2. Jack bought a CD as a present for his dad and he took it home. | ||
| 3. He met some friends in town and they had dinner at a café on Saturday night. | ||
| 4. On Sunday, he wrote a short e-mail and sent it successfully to his friend in Canada. | ||
| 5. He rented a DVD-Troy, but there was a different film in. |
B. PHONETICS + LANGUAGE FOCUS + LANGUAGE FUNCTION
I. Circle the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. (0.5 pt)
1. A. answer B. teacher C. butter D. birth
2. A. surprise B. alone C. neighbour D. burn
3. A. of B. fat C. few D. safe
4. A. spring B. visit C. present D. usually
5. A. curl B. keen C. glove D. cook
II. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (2,0 pts)
1. -“What would you like to drink now?” – “_______________.”
A. No, thanks B. Yes, please C. I like to do nothing D. Orange juice, please
2. All of us enjoy _______ to classical music.
A. listen B. listens C. listening D. listened
3. She worked very hard, _______she passed all her exams.
A. because B. and C. so D. but
4. Hoa looks red. She was outdoors yesterday. Perhaps she has _______
A. flu B. sunburn C. spots D. stomachache
5. My family has decided to use _________ electricity by using more solar energy instead.
A. more B. less C. much D. fewer
6. I …………… playing board games interesting because I can play them with my friends.
A. find B. think C. say D. tell
7. -” Would you like me to turn off your computer?
– ” ______________. I’ll do it myself”
A. No, thanks B. Yes, please C. Don’t do it D. Of course
8. You like playing monopoly or chess, your hobby may be _______.
A. collecting things B. playing sports C. dancing D. board games
C. READING
I. Read and fill in the blanks with ONE word given in the box. There is one Extra word you don’t need to use. (1.0 pt)
| hobby improve when writes because difficult |
My Favorite Hobby
My name is Sara. My favorite _____________(1) is reading. I enjoy reading a book when I am free. I started to do it ______________(2) I was four years old. The first time I did it, I felt interested. So I kept reading. The teachers always taught me to read the difficult words. I was happy when I read a story with a happy ending. I was thrilled when I read a detective story.
I enjoy reading ______________(3) I like to explore the imaginative world of my favorite author, J.K. Rowling who _____________(4) ” Harry Potter” . There are a lot of advantages of reading. Reading can make me relaxed and calm. I can also learn new vocabulary items. Then I can further _________________(5) my English. Moreover, it can give me an unlimited imagination, so I can write books in the future. I can learn the different cultures and customs of other countries in the world too.
I read at least one hour every day. I read books by myself. I usually read it at home. I wish I could read different kinds of books because it might be very challenging.
II. Read the following passages and answer the questions below. (1.5 pts)
Oil painting:
Since the 18th century, under the impact of society, culture, and technology, oil painting has undergone dramatic changes. They are rebellious but passionate, and prosperous.
Watercolor paintings
Watercolor paintings are considered a unique way to creatively represent dreams, illusions, emotions, and bright feelings using water-soluble pigments.
Sketch: (Tranh phác họa)
Van Gogh did not begin painting until his late twenties. He produced more than 2,000 artworks, consisting of around 900 paintings and 1,100 sketches.
Portrait: (Tranh chân dung)
The Mona Lisa is a famous 16th-century portrait by Leonardo da Vinci. The true identity of the woman pictured in the portrait remains unknown, despite intensive researches by art historians.
1. What kind of painting is rebellious?
=> ……………………………………………………………………………..
2. Who was famous for Sketch?
=> ……………………………………………………………………………..
3. When did Leonardo da Vinci draw the portrait ‘ The Mona Lisa”?
=> ……………………………………………………………………………..
D. WRITING
I. Combine each pair of the following sentences into one, using the suggested conjunctions in the brackets. (1.5 pts)
1. Mr. Hai usually has stomach problems. He eats dinner very close to the bedtime. (so)
=> …………………………………………………………………………………..
2. My dad has a lot of carved eggs. He has never sold any of them. (but)
=> ………………………………………………………………………
3. You will get a breathing problem. Clean your bed room more regularly. (or)
=> ……………………………………………………………………….
II. Rearrange the jumbled words to make meaningful sentences. (1.0 pt)
1. It/ be/ good idea/ eat/ different/ kind/ fruit/ vegetable/ every day.
=> ………………………………………………………………………
2. My brother/ not like/ ice-skating/ because/ think/ it/ dangerous.
=> …………………………………………………………………………
Đáp án đề thi giữa học kỳ 1 môn tiếng Anh lớp 7
A. LISTENING (Tỉ lệ 25%)
I. Listen and circle the best answer for the following questions as you hear. (5 items x 0,25 = 1.25 pts)
1.C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A
II. Listen to Jack and Naomi. Are the statements below true (T) or false (F)? Check (T or F) in the boxes. (5 items x 0,25 = 1.25 pts)
1. T 2. F 3. T 4. F 5. T
B. PHONETICS + LANGUAGE FOCUS + LANGUAGE FUNCTION (Tỉ lệ 25%)
I. Circle the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.) (5 items x 0,1 = 0,5 pt)
1.D 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C
II. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (8 items x 0,25 =2,0 pts)
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B
5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D
C. READING
I. Read and fill in the blanks with ONE word given in the box. There is one Extra word you don’t need to use. (5 items x 0,2 = 1,0 pt)
1. hobby 2. when 3. because 4. writes 5. improve
II. Read the following passages and answer the questions below. (1.5 pts)
1. It is Oil painting.
2. Van Gogh was famous for it.
3. He painted it in the sixteenth century.
D. WRITING
I. Combine each pair of the following sentences into one, using the conjunctions in brackets. (3 items x 0,5 =1.5 pts)
1. Mr. Hai eats dinner very close to the bedtime, so he usually has stomach problems.
2. My dad has a lot of carved eggs, but he has never sold any of them.
3. Clean your bed room more regularly or you will get a breathing problem.
II. Rearrange the jumbled words to make meaningful sentences. (2 items x 0,5 =1.0 pt)
1. It’s a good idea to eat different kinds of fruit and vegetables every day.
2. My brother doesn’t like ice-skating because he thinks it is dangerous.
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